(no subject)

[alexseanchai]

Attn: Jewish folks who read my journal! I have a favor to ask. Specifically, I have the impression that the "Judeo-" prefix in the italicized sentence to follow is somewhere from misleading to actively wrong. I wish one or two people with active familiarity with Judaism to confirm or deny this.

Haides should not be confused with the Judeo-Christian figure of Satan, for Haides is neither wicked nor a tempter.

(The problem is I really have no idea how much of the whole Satan/Lucifer/etc concept is derived from the Tanakh et al and Jewish thought and how much from the Old and New Testaments and Milton, Dante, et al and Christian thought. I know the Book of Job is pertinent, but that doesn't, like, help. And I do not want this project I'm on to misrepresent anybody.)

Thanks!

ETA: All answered, thank you!

Comments

[tptigger]

The Hebrew, if I recall correctly is samach-tav-nun. I have no clue where the other "as" is coming from. It's pronounced Sah-tan (both a's as in father) though your interpretation sounds familiar.

Wait, I'm a dingbat. *grabs Hebrew-English dictionary* well, that's not useful, it's not in there. I recall the snake in the Garden of Eden being described as the satan, but it's not a proper noun?

[madgastronomer]

I might be thinking of the Arabic word, then. Oops. Sorry.

I think the snake isn't actually described that way, because I seem to recall that that's a later interpolation by Christians, but I could be wrong.